Hi, all, my question could seem a little foolish, but maybe is not so...
Three routers are attached to a Frame Relay network;
Router1 has PVCs toward both Router2 and Router3, but Router2 and Router3 don't have one PVC between them. All routers are in the same subnet.

A routing protocol provides adequate routes on the three routers and inverse-arp provide correct mapping for all routers.
My question is:
Router2 and router3 can reach each other passing through router1?
My doubt arise from ascertainment of the following fact:
If router2 want to send a frame to router3, he know:
DLCI for reach router1;
Router1 can reach directly the link who share with Router3 and has routes for reach all subnets behind that.
Practically Router2 would have to put into its frame the DLCI to reach router1 and a IP address to reach a subnet behind router3.
Seems to me impossible, but just I would want a support.
Thank You.