Ok I am labbing right now. My lab consist of 1 1721 and 2 2950s for cisco testing and a netgear router for the internet. I have a windows server box with 3 nics: 1 connected to the switch A, 1 connected to switch b, and 1 connected to my netgear router for internet access. Port 1 is a 10.0.0. network (it is 10.0.0.47) and it is in vlan 2. Port b is in a 192.168.1 network and it is in vlan 3 (it is 192.168.2.65). I have set up dot1q trunking on my cisco router and everything is working now. My issue is that my router only has 1 ethernet port. I was thinking about changing my network up to being something like this:cable modem>1721>netgear box>2950>2950My concern is what will happen to the tagged frames when they hit the netgear box. If I configure vlans on the 2950s and set the 1721 as the default gateway would this work? What is this: Say I ping an ip address from my computer that is set in a different network. Like say I ping 192.168.1.47. What is happening is the icmp request are being sent out to the default gateway and then being sent by the other port, or in a sense it is being from the computer to the gateway, and then the computer replies (I have been watching this happen in wireshark). But when the information is sent out to the gateway, it is using a packet (layer 3) so what I think will happen is when the netgear gets a packet (lets just say in this case the icmp request) it will forward it on to the 1721 (after I set it up to do by setting the default gateway for the netgear router to be the 1721). The same thing should apply to the vlan traffic that is destined for intervlan communication (right?).I think my question makes sense (or at least it does to me). I also plan to try to use route redistribution from ospf or eigrp to rip (since my home router only supports rip v1). I think this might work but I am not sure about the vlan thing. Anyone care to help a brother out?