I have a question about the classic example given where a newly-introduced switch with a higher revision number blows away the existing config on a network by propagating its VLAN table across the domain.
My question is, won't this only work if the newly-introduced client is on the same domain as the rest of the devices running VTP? Also, how is it possible for this switch, which is in client mode, to propagate its changes to the rest of the network even in its client state?
I understand that a client will forward VTP advertisements received from a server to the rest of the network if the revision number is higher, but if the update did not COME FROM a server (the update originates from a client with a higher revision number), how does the client send this update since it is not a server?
Here is my source with an excerpt:
http://www.cisco.com/image/gif/paws/98155/tshoot-vlan.pdfThe configuration revision number of the switch that you inserted was higher than the configuration revision
number of the VTP domain. Therefore, your recently introduced switch, with almost no configured VLANs,
erased all VLANs through the VTP domain.
This occurs whether the switch is a VTP client or a VTP server. A VTP client can erase VLAN information
on a VTP server. You can tell that this has occurred when many of the ports in your network go into inactive
state but continue to be assigned to a nonexistent VLAN.