Hi folks.
So I saw a practice question that contained the following topology and this possible answer:
"If OSPF is running on all routers, then static Frame Relay mappings are required for this topology to work correctly."
Now to me, this looks legit. OSPF will see the networks connected to R2 and R3 and the frame relay network, but it will not route *inside* the Frame Relay network, as it's a single subnet. Now the routers will dynamically learn the IP addresses of the routers that are directly connected, via RARP, but R2 and R3 will never dynamically learn how to reach each other. They need a static mapping telling then to go via R1 if they need to communicate and, without this, the topology will not work.
However this is listed as an incorrect answer on the site I'm using, and I'm not sure why. Can somebody help me see where I am going wrong?
Thanks folks!