IPv6 network deployment

RJR

So I am hitting IPV6 pretty hard. The most fundamental concept I want to wrap my head around is actually deploying this from the perspective of a home lab or SMB.

So, the ISP will give me a /48 or /56 depending on their procedures. If given a /48 or /56 I would probably chop that into /64's.

So should I ask for an additional /64 for a PTP Wan connection? Then have them route the /48 block to me so I can do this more effectively?


The way I see it is they're going to give me (EXAMPLE) 2001:1234:5678::2/48 and their GATEWAY will be 2001:1234:5678::1/48 which could effect me chopping those blocks into /64's. EXAMPLE 2001:1234:5678:0001::/64 0002:/64 0003:/64

Or would all those be routable as below?

<<<

---

WAN GI0/1 POINTS TO ISP 2001:1234:5678::2/48 (DEFAULT ROUTE TO ISP) LAN #1 GI0/2 2001:1234:5678:0001::1/64 (ALL INTERNAL HOSTS USE SLAAC TO FIND THIS ROUTER DEFAULT GATEWAY) LAN#2 GI0/3 2001:1234:5678:0002::1/64 SAME

theodoxa

If I remember correctly, Hurricane Electric (https://ipv6.he.net/) will give you a /48 and /64. As for ISPs, when I was with Comcast, I believe all we got was a /64. That was for home internet. A business customer might be able to get a larger (/4 block.

Priston

If the ISP gives you a /48 there is a good chance they know your going to subnet it. The point to point connection shouldn't be a /48.

At work we have a /54. The first 2 /64 subnets of our /54 are the point to point connections.

Some locations use /127 point to points.

RJR

That sounds logical. So if you are receiving a /48 that means you are going to have 2^16 amount of /64's (65,535). So it would be indeed possible for the ISP to route the /48 over the WAN interface via a /64 of that /48.

Cool. Will test this theory in a lab. But I think I got it.