PPPoE concept confusion? CCNA

Llukman1

Hi everyone,
I want to know about the IP address assignment and how that works. The book I am reading says that the subscriber gets its IP address from the aggregate router via IPCP. Now is this IP address permanent for this subscriber.
Second question: It also states that the opposite side of the link's IP address is given to it and it's available only for the specific time period that the PPPoE connection is open. Is this talking about the destination IP address of the remote host you are talking to? Or the IP address that is assigned to the subscriber?

Here is the book page link I am looking at...maybe you guys can better comprehend it than I can?
https://books.google.com/books?id=K7SSGkHE93oC&pg=PT616&lpg=PT616&dq=Ano...'s+IP+address&source=bl&ots=15dEBL88Hl&sig=5NY7lQrX1HazNRCey5-bmNu3XQQ&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwj9urrroK7RAhVEX5QKHU--DPcQ6AEIGjAA#v=onepage&q=Another%20factor%20is%20that%20the%20opposite%20side%20of%20the%20link's%20IP%20address&f=false

WastedHat

Hi, I've never read Lammles book but did you learn about PPP Control Protocols? IPCP is one of them which supports IPv4 on PPP links. This scenario is PPPoE so you get all those control protocols inside the Ethernet tunnel.


If you use PPP encapsulation you can use IPCP to dynamically assign an IP address just like you would with DHCP. I learned this from Oboms book, in his example it's a PPPoE connection from a customer router to an ISP router. This is the first time I've seen it originating from a host via PPP-software.

I imagine because the address is dynamically assigned, it's not supposed to be pernament. If the connection was lost and the subscriber reconnected they would just recieve whatever address is available from a pre-defined pool. If it was configured statically on both ends then it would be pernament.

So the "given" IP address is assigned dynamically to the subscriber from the ISP.