Vlans question

smity_ozsmity_oz Member Posts: 10 ■□□□□□□□□□
When a VLAN is deleted any ports assigned to that VLAN become inactive. The ports will, however, remain associated with the deleted VLAN until assigned to a new VLAN.
Does this mean if i did a no vlan 3 in the vlan database mode and then a show vlan in priv exec that it would still show the interfaces as being part of vlan 3 but inactive?
Becuase the sim I have puts them back into the default vlan1 and I dont have a real router to test.
Thanks in advance.
Keep it FREE!!!!!!!!!!!!


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    ReardenRearden Member Posts: 222
    Why is it that to assign a management IP to a switch, you assign the IP to vlan 1? Is there any reason for that or just 'one of them had to be default and vlan 1 is as logical as anything else'?
    More systems have been wiped out by admins than any cracker could do in a lifetime.
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    DW [banned]DW [banned] Inactive Imported Users Posts: 240
    Actually the management vlan does not have to be VLAN 1.

    It is the default.

    I typically do something like this:

    1. Create a vlan

    conf t
    vlan 2
    name MANAGE

    int vlan 2
    ip address

    Setup a default network statement and shutdown vlan 1

    I'd have to ensure than ports are assigned to vlan 2 so that they can participate.
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    Mrock4Mrock4 Banned Posts: 2,359 ■■■■■■■■□□
    Damn, beat me to the punch.....
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    ReardenRearden Member Posts: 222
    So in that case, vlan 2 would need to be on your tunk ports, but not on any access ports. if you were only using it for management purposes?

    //let me clarify. . .here, we keep a couple of servers that have interfaces in vlan1 for management and assign all of the switches 10.x.x.x addresses
    More systems have been wiped out by admins than any cracker could do in a lifetime.
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